Read The New Testament…? We Have!(2)
READ THE NEW TESTAMENT…? WE HAVE! (2)
They were so anxious for us to read it, so we did. And there are problems.
If Jesus was not actually related to Joseph but conceived of the “Holy Ghost”, to what purpose are the genealogies proving Joseph’s Davidic ancestry? Why is there such a flagrant discrepancy between Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies? If one of these genealogies is Mary’s, and not Joseph’s, why isn’t her name mentioned in either? Since only the paternal descent is significant, what could be the purpose of recording Mary’s genealogy? If Jesus were really “David’s son”, why did he specifically ridicule the “Pharisaic” tenet that Messiah is to be of David’s seed? (Luke 20:41-44: Mark 12:35-37.) Why did Jesus say: “how say THE SCRIBES that Christ is the son of David?” (Mark 12:35) implying that scripture did NOT say the same? When the multitudes asked how it was that Jesus, as the Messiah, comes from Galilee, why weren’t they told that he was actually born in Bethlehem? (John 8:41-42). If this “fact” was unknown to the disciples, how was it discovered by the Gospel authors who lived a century later?
Why was Jesus called “Jesus” and not “Immanuel” if he were the “child” promised by Isaiah (7:14)? If Jesus was “Immanuel”, God with us, the incarnation of the second person of the Trinity, why did he say, “Why callest thou ME good? There is none good but ONE, that is, GOD.” (Matthew 19:17) implying that he was NEITHER good NOR divine?
Why didn’t Jesus save his people, the Jews, from their enemies, as Zacharias, John’s father prophesied by the Holy Ghost (Luke 1:71)?
Why did Jesus say “if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments” (ibid.) if no man is justified by “works of the law”? (Romans 3:20,21,28 etc.).
Why did Jesus say that whosoever breaks even the least commandment and bid others to do so (Matthew 5:19) shall be called least in his kingdom; but whosoever shall do and teach the commandments shall be “great”; if men could be justified by faith in him (Jesus) WITHOUT the WORKS OF THE LAW (Galatians 2:16)?
If Jesus was the “light unto the Gentiles” why did he consider them inferior beings (Matthew 15:26)? Why did he deny having been sent to THEM (ibid. 24) and why did he forbid his disciples to approach THEM (Matthew 10: -6)?
If John had actually seen a dove descending from heaven over Jesus’ head, and heard the voice proclaiming him as the “beloved son” etc. (Matthew 3:16-17; Luke 3:22), why did he later send two of his disciples to ask whether Jesus was the awaited redeemer or “do we look for another?” (Matthew 11:2-3; Luke 7:19-20). If John the Baptist was “Elijah” as Jesus claimed (Matthew 11:14), why did John say that he WASN’T? (John 1:21 ).
“John Elijah” was to turn the heart of the fathers to the children etc. (Malachi 4:6), before the coming of the Day of the “Lord”. Is it not strange that Jesus should declare his own purpose as being the VERY OPPOSITE? (Matthew 10:35; Luke 12:51-53). If Jesus was the “Prince of Peace” why did he claim “NOT to send peace but a sword”? (Matthew 10:34). If it was Jesus’ purpose to LAY DOWN HIS LIFE for the sins of the world, why did he so fear and chastise the Jews who sought to KILL him? (John 8:3740). If Jesus had the power to lay down his own life or to save it (John 10:18) why did he say “Oh my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me. Nevertheless, not as I will, but as THOU wilt”. (Matthew 26:39). Why was Jesus FORSAKEN of God? (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34 etc). If Jesus came to intercede for sinners, why did he say, I pray NOT for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.” (John 17:9).
Jesus promised his speedy return as the triumphant King Messiah. This was to happen BEFORE his disciples had a chance to preach in all the cities of Israel (Matthew 10:23) and during the ACTUAL LIFETIME of his LISTENERS (Matthew 17:28; Mark 9:1). That was nineteen centuries ago. Why then are we to expect a “second coming” at this late date?
Why has the Church resorted to crusades, inquisitions, heresy trials, pogroms etc. to persuade mankind as to the “truth” of the Gospel? Which of the thousands of rival, squabbling sects is the true “Church of Christ”? Why are thousands of missionaries necessary to prove that Jesus was the Messiah, if we are already living in the messianic era? If Christianity has saved mankind, why has the so-called “Christian” world been torn and ravaged by war, hatred, and injustice?
We suggest that CHRISTIANS “reread” the new Testament to discover whether or not THEY are on the wrong track! We sincerely believe they are.
Submitted by: M. Alfandari;